Monday, June 6, 2016
Do income statistics tell the whole story of income inequality?
It's pretty well-known that real incomes in the bottom 90% of the U.S. income ladder have only improved modestly since the early 1970s, after having doubled (i.e. increased by 100%) over the 25 years before that. But is it possible that those statistics do not tell the whole story? Is it possible that, even though those incomes haven't improved, the quality and caliber of the things that can be bought with them have? And further, does the improved quality of those goods compensate for the reduced apparent income?